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| Title: Error in doctrine. | |
| Revival_Centres_Discussion_Forums > Bible, Beliefs, Scriptures and 'The Word' > The Christian room - For Christians about Christianity | Go to subcategory： |
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Biblianut
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Date Posted：05/10/2011 1:56 AMCopy HTML Hi Eric, Only yesterday I found an error in Romans 8:28 and I ain’t the greatest of brains when it comes to Biblical languages. Bringing this to attention, I had a bit of a look for myself. King James Version (KJV) New International Version - Is the ‘discrepancy’, in interpretation, and that the KJV puts the emphasis on man and not God or what is it? You no doubt have found something in the Greek text that the KJV misinterpreted. Ralph. I believe in Christianity as I believe the sun has risen; not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else. C.S.Lewis.
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Didaktikon
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Re：Error in doctrine. Date Posted：06/10/2011 12:25 AMCopy HTML Good morning, Ralph. I've just now had a quick peek at the passage, to try and see what all the fuss is about. Romans 8:28 Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ [ὁ θεὸς] εἰς ἀγαθόν τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν (literally, 'And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God and are called according to his purpose'). First it's important to acknowledge that the Greek text that underpins the KJV translation of Romans 8:28 (i.e. the 'Textus Receptus') is lexically identical to the modern critical Greek text (i.e. the NA27/UBS4). There are slight punctuation differences here and there, and there is also a text critical issue to be resolved (whether or not the second reference to God in the clause is original), but the two Greek editions largely print the same text. In other words, in this instance at least, the matter doesn't revolve around a spurious reading in the text that lies beneath the KJV's translation. Insofar as I can tell the issue is quite minor, and relates to how the passage is to be translated (noting that this involves grappling with a tricky grammatical issue). The issue revolves around whether or not the verb συνεργέω ('works') should be read as transitive (i.e. it requires a direct subject and at least one direct object) or as intransitive (i.e. the verb has no direct object). If the second reference to 'God' in the clause is original, then the verb is transitive. If it isn't (which is the most likely option), then it's intransitive. We're then presented with two possibilities. First, that the subject of the clause is embedded in the verb, and 'God' is implied. This would lead to the translation, 'he works all things together for good'. The second option is that πάντα ('all things') becomes the subject of an intransitive verb, leading us to, 'all things work together for good'. But the reality is that neither option really affects the meaning clearly intended by the text. To be honest, I'm not completely sure what 'error' Eric reckons he's found in the KJV translation. Eric? Blessings, Ian email: didaktikon@gmail.com
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