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Te Luo Yi
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Rank:Poster Venti III

Score: 11710
Registered: 25/04/2005

(Date Posted:21/10/2005 13:14:22)

Reply to : Brett [Anonymous]THERE IS A GENIUNE EXPERIENCE OF MIRACULUOSLY SPEAKING IN ANOTHER LANGUAGE WHEN FILLED WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT DESCRIBED IN THE BIBLE, AVAILABLE FOR EVERYBODY.BUT THERE IS THE REAL THING.As I mentioned earlier, I will assume that there is a real thing and will not attempt to discredit your experience (at least in these threads...) so please don't feel the need to justify your experience. I accept that. There is no doubt that the bible teaches there is such a thing as speaking in tongues and as we are utilising the Bible in these threads, I have no desire or reason to attempt to contradict the Bible here. Rather I would like to try to discern what the Bible has to say about the role of speaking in tongues in salvation.WE CANT FIND THE ANSWER IN THE GOSPELS OF MATTHEW, MARK, LUKE AND JOHN BECAUSE THEY DESCRIBE EVENTS BEFORE THE HOLY SPIRIT WAS GIVEN. THE HOLY SPIRIT WAS NOT TO BE GIVEN TILL AFTER JESUS HAS DIED, ROSE AGAIN, ASCENDED AND BE GLORIFIED. SO, WE CANT READ ABOUT PEOPLE RECEIVING THE SPIRIT IN THE GOSPELS, CAUSE NO ONE DID. IT WAS NOT POSSIBLE.Brett, I don't agree with that statement at all. However, as I have said, let's stick with Acts for now and get into that one later on if we need to.MANY THEOLOGIANS OBJECT TO THIS BY SAYING THAT WE CANT USE ACTS FOR CONSTRUCTING DOCTRINE BECAUSE IT IS MERELY "NARRATIVE". THEY SAY IT JUST A HISTOICAL RECORD TELLING US WHAT DID HAPPEN NOT WHAT SHOULD HAPPEN, SO FOR DEFINING DOCTRINE WE SHOULD ONLY USE SCRIPTURE THAT IS EXPLICITLY "TEACHING" AND NOT NARRATIVE.BUT THIS OBJECTION IS TOTALLY WRONG BECAUSE IT SAYS IN 1st TIMOTHY 3:16 THAT: "ALL SCRIPTURE IS USEFUL FOR...... DOCTRINE....".SINCE ACTS IS SCRIPTURE WE CAN THEREFORE USE IT TO DEFINE DOCTRINE, SO, THERE IS NOTHING WRONG OR UNSCRIPTURAL WITH CONSTRUCTING A DOCTRINE OF RECEIVING THE SPIRIT FROM THE BOOK OF ACTS. IN FACT, AS I'VE ALREADY SAID, IT IS THE ONLY PART OF THE N.T. THAT YOU CAN DO SO FROM.Sure. I understand where you're coming from with that. There is little doubt that many use Acts as a place from which to draw doctrine.WHAT DO WE FIND HAPPENING IN THE BOOK OF ACTS AT THE MOMENT PEOPLE RECEIVE THE SPIRIT?SPEAKING IN TONGUES.On some ocassions yes. But the point I was making in posting Drew Dixon's article is that this is not always the case. You can ignore that point all you like, but it is still a fact. Not everyone in the book of Acts exhibits tongues at their point of salvation. I know you touch on this later in your post, but whether tongues is always the sign or not (by inference), you simply cannot say that Acts ALWAYS says they spoke in tongues when saved. It's simply not there.IN ACTS 2, ON THE DAY OF PENTECOST, WHEN THE FIRST DISCIPLES RECEIVED THE SPIRIT, WHAT DID THE NON-CHRISTIAN CROWD SEE AND HEAR THAT SO AMAZED THEM AND CAUGHT THEIR ATTENTION?DID THEY SEE THE "LOVE" OF THE DISCIPLES? WERE THEY AMAZED COZ THEY SAW THE "PATIENCE" OR "GENTLENESS" OF THE DISCIPLES?NO. IT WAS TONGUES.Brett, I feel you are looking at these verses as proof-texts for your doctrine, rather than looking at what it actually says. If we are to try to use this a a normative example of someone's salvation then we need to consider a few points.1.There was the sound of a rushing wind.2. Tongues of fire appeared over the apostles.3. The apostles spoke intongues.4. People heard these tongues as being their own diverse languages.So, if your belief that Acts 2 is a normative salvation account then we MUST also expectwind,tongues of fire, andimmediate translation of the tonguesby someone who naturally speaks that language. But all these things combined NEVER happen doe they? In othr words, ACTS 2 IS NORMATIVE FOR NO ONE EXCEPT THE APOSTLES!!!But wait! There's more!Now if I can take this even further and quote Ian Thomason here, who is well versed in Koine Greek,"When the current versification of the Bible is removed, the artificial division that separates 1:26 from 2:1-4 disappears. What we find is that the antecedent to the verb 'they-were-filled'(as in"...they were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues") ish?deka apost?on:theeleven apostleswith whom Matthias had recently been added. As is the case with English, the action of the Greek verb effects the subject of the sentence or passage. In this instance, the grammatical subject of the passage isthe eleven apostles. The 'one hundred and twenty' of verse 15cannotfunction as the subject of the account. As I mentioned earlier, Luke's Greek is very polished. It's clear, then, that he intended to impress upon his readers that thetwelve apostles alonespoke the languages ('tongues') at Pentecost." (http://pleaseconsider.info/index_frame.htm?../articles/acts/acts2.htm)In other words, the others of the 120 did not have tongues of fire upon themnor did they speak in tongues. This is why most religious art depicting the Day of Pentecostonlyshows the Apostles having this experience.This is not an attempt by mainstream churches to denounce the tongues doctrine, such was not even heard of when these paintings were done. Rather their tradition reflectsthe Greek text.Now please Brett, Don't skip over this point... According to the Greek, the 120 DID NOT SPEAK IN TONGUES...ONLY THE APOSTLES DID!!!Then further on the account we read that:The 3000 were baptised and were added to the churchNo signs were associated with the believersSigns were evident, all of which were attributed to and centred on the Apostles3000 MORE AND NO TONGUES!!!So what you have here Brett is not a solid proof-text for your Revivalist doctrine at all. Rather it affirms the opposite that not everyone spoke in tongues on the Day of Pentecost.As I have said, please don't think this is an attack on your tongues experience. It isn't. Rather it is a challenge to your assumptions and preconceptions (birthed and nurturedin the cult) about speaking in tongues in the Bible.I will continue to answer your further points in other threads.

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Wanna know why I do not believe in Jesus anymore?

http://whyidontbelieve.blogspot.com

Warrick 007
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Registered: 21/08/2005


(Date Posted:21/10/2005 17:28:40)

The reason and purpose why it was only the disciples that spoke in toungues and not the 120 was so they could communicate Gods message to Israel, and is verified in the three passages in Acts where speaking in tongues is mentioned. Acts 2 tongues-speaking was used as a missionary or evangelistic tool in fulfillment of Isaiah 28:11. There was no need for the disciples to learn other languages before they could communicate the Gospel. God overcame the language barrier through the miracel-gift of tongues. On the day of penticost there where "Jew's out of every nation under heaven(Acts2:5). And when the disciples "began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance" the hearers resonded with the question, "And how hear we every man in our own tongue, where in we were born?"(Acts2v8) Observe that they were "Jews" from other countries who spoke many languages and dialects, and yet each heard the Gospel in his own tongue, Isaiahs's prophecy was being fulfilled.

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Contact Warrick mob- 0415326468, email- revivalrecovery@yahoo.com.au for help and free counselling for victims of REVIVAL abuse.

A man died and went to heaven. He was met by Jesus and Jesus began to show him around. As they walked they saw some amazing things. Some too beautiful and amazing to describe. Eventually they came to a huge wall and the man heard the sound of music, laughing and what basically sounded like a party coming from behind the wall. Curious, the man asked Jesus what was going on behind the wall.
Jesus answered, "Shhhh!!! Not too loud. That"s the GRC. They think they"re the only ones here!!!"

MothandRust
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Rank:Old Forum Fogey

Score:32520
Registered: 27/02/2004


(Date Posted:21/10/2005 18:10:45)

In my experience with the tongues focussed doctrine of R/R/Gs et al., it seems that they drag and drop every scripture remotely related to making a sound or speaking a language, phonos, utterances, groanings, tongues, languages,  into the 'ecstatic speech' or 'tongues' folder. But not all these scriptures are necessarity talking about the debatable glossolalia miracle.

It was important at that time to spread the gospel and therefore it was important to be able to cross the language barriers. This is definitely what the bible refers in the following scripture: (I mean it seems pretty clear)

Acts 2:6-12 "Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? 9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, 10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God. 12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?"

Neat trick, but seems to be confined to that initial 'outpouring', except for some urban myths that exist in modern day christendom. Below is the "tongues" of the book of Acts, and as you can see there was nothing "unknown" about it!

Acts 2:4
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.  (KJV)

other:  Greek word #2087 heteros = other or different

Tongues Greek word #1100 glossa = a language (specially, one naturally unacquired

When they spoke this tongue, everybody understood it, the Scripture lists 18 different languages that understood it AT ONCE!  Not like today's so-called tongues where only another possessed person can think that he understands it.  The Pentecostal Day (Acts ch. 2) tongues were heard and understood by all languages.

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“The mystery of the beginning of all things is insoluble by us; and I for one must be content to remain an agnostic” - Darwin

Anonymous
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Registered: 06/04/2001


(Date Posted:21/10/2005 21:36:14)

Chartdoctor
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Rank:Rookier III

Score:2170
Registered: 29/08/2005


(Date Posted:22/10/2005 05:06:46)

Jonah,really,I am thinking no matter what we say to you ,that you will continue to argue with us. I will have one last try,Acts 19 v2 says Have you received the Holy Ghost since you believed,And they said unto him,We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.v6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them, and they spake with tongues,and prophesied.
This is plain enough for most,and confirms that the experience for the 120 is the same as this,after all,we can read to Jonah ,it does say(acts2/v4 ALL WERE FILLED WITH THE HOLY GHOST AND BEGAN TO SPEAK WITH TONGUES. If you want the rushing wind and fire,well sorry you were not there,that was the initial outpouring,
The mocking started right there,in verse 12 and they were all amazed and were in doubt saying one to another,what meaneth this,v13 others mocking said These men are full of new wine.
Obviously if they are going to start mocking and doubting right at the point of the initial outpouring,then it will continue today.
A person was told about RECEIVING the Holy Spirit here in Adelaide,about a week ago,and she was a little doubtful,but a day or so later,she wasnt feeling well,and suddenly began to speak in other tongues,God confirmed his word with her.
If you are really serious you will get down on your hands and knees and ask God,'WHAT IS THIS TONGUES IN THE BIBLE ALL ABOUT LORD,PLEASE SHOW ME?
Te Luo Yi
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5#



Rank:Poster Venti III

Score:11710
Registered: 25/04/2005


(Date Posted:22/10/2005 09:42:26)

Reply to : Chartdoctor

Jonah,really,I am thinking no matter what we say to you ,that you will continue to argue with us.

Funny, I thought the same thing of you.  But Chartdoctor, my intent is to address these passages in Acts one at a time, systematically.  I want to share why I NO LONGER believe the Bible teaches the necessity of tongues for salvation.  You can be persuaded or not...it's up to you.  You don't have to argue with me at all.  But to me this is a very important passage in light of the Revival Centre doctrine that separates them from ALL other Chrisitians.

I will have one last try,Acts 19 v2 says Have you received the Holy Ghost since you believed,And they said unto him,We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.v6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them, and they spake with tongues,and prophesied.

Yeah, I'll get to that verse a little later.  I promise I will.  What I am trying to do here is just look at what Acts 2 ACTUALLY says.


This is plain enough for most,and confirms that the experience for the 120 is the same as this,after all,we can read to Jonah ,it does say(acts2/v4 ALL WERE FILLED WITH THE HOLY GHOST AND BEGAN TO SPEAK WITH TONGUES.

Chartdoctor, did you even read my post?  You are reading an English translation of a Greek text.  The English may imply it was all the 120 but the Greek manuscripts DO NOT support that implication.  Rather the Greek text says it was the 11 Apostles ONLY.  Chartdoctor, read this snipppet of the article and then tell me where Ian is wrong in his assetion:

"The first four verses of chapter two describe something that wasn't completely unexpected, and wasn't without precedent in Jewish tradition. Jesus very clearly promised to his twelve apostles that "...you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth[9]".
The twelve apostles fully expected to receive some sort of remarkable power, which they understood would be brought about by the presence of the Holy Spirit on them. They expected that this power would enable them to be witnesses
[10] to Jesus in Jerusalem, Samaria and beyond. It's crucial that we recognise, before we go further, that the content of the promise was very specific. The passage records, very clearly, that the promise was made in the context of it being fulfilled by and through the twelve apostles alone (see vv. 2-7). Jesus wasn't describing the preaching of the gospel by Christians throughout the Church Age, but the expansion of the gospel message from Jerusalem and the Jews to the Roman Empire and the Gentiles. And the expansion would occur through the activity and authority of the original twelve (less Judas Iscariot, of course). The fulfilment of this specific commission is clearly a primary theme in the early ?Acts' narrative.
However, as we've already determined, Jesus promised a very specific empowering presence of the Holy Spirit, to his twelve apostles alone. It was they who were to act as his witnesses, and it was they who were to be his representatives in Jerusalem, Judea and elsewhere. With this in mind, it's not surprising to discover that the grammar of the passage fully supports this position.
When the current versification of the Bible is removed, the artificial division that separates 1:26 from 2:1-4 disappears. What we find is that the antecedent to the verb ?they-were-filled' (as in "...they were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues") is h?deka apost?on: the eleven apostles with whom Matthias had recently been added. As is the case with English, the action of the Greek verb effects the subject of the sentence or passage. In this instance, the grammatical subject of the passage is the eleven apostles. The ?one hundred and twenty' of verse 15 cannot function as the subject of the account. As I mentioned earlier, Luke's Greek is very polished. It's clear, then, that he intended to impress upon his readers that the twelve apostles alone spoke the languages (?tongues') at Pentecost."

If you want the rushing wind and fire,well sorry you were not there,that was the initial outpouring,

Well Chartdoctor, now you are saying that the outpouring on the Day of Pentecost was a 'special event' and not a normative experience at all.  ok, it was the intitial outpouring.  On that we agree.  That is the point entirely.  It wasn't a blueprint for eveyone's salvation experiece.

The mocking started right there,in verse 12 and they were all amazed and were in doubt saying one to another,what meaneth this,v13 others mocking said These men are full of new wine.
Obviously if they are going to start mocking and doubting right at the point of the initial outpouring,then it will continue today.

I am not mocking anything.  I am taking note of what the text ACTUALLY says rather than letting you use it as a proof-text for a Revivalist doctrine.  As I said earlier, I am not attemptiting to dismiss tongues as a gift.  I am attempting to show the Bible does not teach (even implicitly) that people should expect to speak in tongues when 'saved'.


A person was told about RECEIVING the Holy Spirit here in Adelaide,about a week ago,and she was a little doubtful,but a day or so later,she wasnt feeling well,and suddenly began to speak in other tongues,God confirmed his word with her.

Nice story.  I have no reason to doubt it.  But let's stick with what the Bible says for now shall we?


If you are really serious you will get down on your hands and knees and ask God,'WHAT IS THIS TONGUES IN THE BIBLE ALL ABOUT LORD,PLEASE SHOW ME?

Chartdoctor, that's exactly what the Mormons tell me to do about their Book of Mormon.  Get down and ask God with a pure heart and he will reveal it.  Are you ready to do that?  Ask God if the Book of Mormon is true?  I am sure God expects you to do a little searching out of tthat for yourself right?  Well, let's just stick with the Bible for now shall we?

--------------------------------------------------------------
Wanna know why I do not believe in Jesus anymore?

http://whyidontbelieve.blogspot.com

Anonymous
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